Random Study June 2024

 So while engaging in morning prayer today, I read and recited The Apostles Creed. I stopped after reading this phrase:

"I believe in Jesus Christ, his only Son, our Lord.

He was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit

and born of the Virgin Mary.

He suffered under Pontius Pilate,

was crucified, died, and was buried.

He descended to the dead."  (emphasis added)

In an earlier version of The Apostle's Creed (1940s Book of Common Prayer uses the 250AD version), the last phrase is translated as, "He descended into hell". 

I wanted to see the possible origin or original thought for framing Jesus' death that way. I "consulted", as I often do, Dr. R.C. Sproul. In his book, "Hard Sayings," in the 27th chapter entitled, "Did Jesus Descend into Hell?", he offers views from various Bible scholars and theologians. He is referencing the context of 1 Peter 3:18-22. Some say He went to hell on a redemption mission to free the OT saints so that they could go to heaven. Others say He went to hell to fully complete His sacrifice by being exposed to the terrors of hell. However, when comparing scripture with scripture, there is no passage that says Jesus went to hell in any localized place. What it does say is that Jesus said at the time of His death on the cross, "It is finished!" using the language of the time to state that He has made full and final payment at the moment of His death. The other difficulty in trying to puzzle out the writing at ! Peter is that the interpretations and explanations are very diverse. Dr. Sproul says it is a struggle to unravel the difficulty of this passage, but for a certainty it does not say that Jesus went to hell, but rather to a place of imprisonment. It also does not say when Jesus went to proclaim to the spirits in prison. 

Also, when looking at the original Greek and Hebrew scriptures and the words used there to describe what happened to Jesus after death, the Hebrew word "kever" is used and the Greek word "mnemeion"  is used (where the "e" between the "n" and the "m" has a stroke above it); both words translate to "grave or tomb" - a place of burial. 

So the phrase, "He descended into hell," may have been understood through a surmised interpretation of 1 Peter 3. 

Also notable: the Hebrew word "Sheol" which sometimes gets transliterated as "grave" is an incorrect translation. That Jewish word has the connotation of "realm of the dead" or "abode of the dead" where the souls of the dead reside. However, in Jewish texts, the word "Gehinnom" refers to a place of eternal punishment or where the wrath of God is executed. Similarly, in Greek, the word "Geenna" refers to such a finality. The Greek also uses the word, "Hades", which is pulled from Greek mythology and likewise refers to "the place of punishment, hell" and may even refer to the "lowest condition or lowest place."

Therefore, when the Book of Common Prayer was updated, the "He descended into hell" was rendered "He descended to the dead." Possibly as a "middle ground" in the debate? As the "to the dead" could carry with it an implication that He went to an "abode" or simply, as scripture states, that His body was placed in the tomb, and His spirit was commended/committed to the Father. (Luke 23:46; Matthew 27:58-60)

I am a Bible student and not a Bible scholar with credentials to qualify me as a Bible expert. I always try, however, to interpret scripture with scripture and listen for the Holy Spirit when I am stumped. He will either say '\'you're not able to understand right now," or "here is what you should know at this point in your journey."